Class : X Time : 3 Hours : Max. Marks : 80

1. Weightages to form of Questions:

Form of Question Marks Number of Serial number Total

each type Questions of Questions marks

Very Short Answer (VSA) 1 10 1 – 10 10

Short Answer (SA) 3 8 11 – 18 24

Long Answer (LA) 4 10 19 – 28 40

Map Question (MQ) 2 and 4 2 (29) to (30) 6

Total – 30 1 to 30 80

(Chapter numbers of N.C.E.R.T. & C.B.S.E. Textbooks related to each unit are given within

brackets against each of themes)

Theme 1. Nationalism in Europe (Ch.1) Any one 4 marks

Theme 2. National Movement in Indo – China (Ch.2)

(compulsory)

4 marks

.

Industrialization 1850 s – 1950s (Ch.5)

Theme 5. Urbanization and Urban lives (Ch.6) Any Two 6marks

Theme 6. Trade and Globalization (Ch.4)

Theme 7. Print culture and nationalism (Ch.7)

Theme 8. History of Novel (Ch.8) ( Any one) 4marks

(Based on Sub Units 1.1 to 1.3) 2marks

}

}

}

2

2.1 Resources (ch.1)

2.2 Natural Resources (ch.1) 5 marks

2.3 Agriculture (ch.4)

2.4 Water Resources (ch.3)

2.5 Mineral Resources (ch.5) 6 marks

2.6 Power Resources (ch.5)

2.7 Manufacturing Industries (ch.6)

2.8 Transport, Communication and Trade (ch.7) 3 marks

2.9 Map work (Based on sub units 2.1 to 2.8) 4 marks

3.1 Working of Democracy (ch.3 &4) 6 marks

3.2 Power Sharing Mechanism in Democracy (ch.1&2) 4 marks

3.3 Competition and Contestations in Democracy (ch .5 & 6) 4 marks

3.4 Outcomes of Democracy (ch.7)

3.5 Challenges to Democracy (ch.8)

4 marks

4.1 The Story of Development (ch.1) 1 mark

4.2 Money and Financial System (ch.3) 4 marks

4.3 The Role of Service Sector in Indian Economy (ch.2) 4 marks

4.4 Globalisation (ch.4) 4 marks

4.5 Consumer Awareness (ch.5) 3 marks

5.1 Tsunami (ch.2)

3 marks

5.2 Safe Construction Practices (ch.5)

}

}

}

}

3

5.3 Survival Skills (ch.3)

5.4 Alternative Communication Systems 3 marks

During Disaster (ch.4)

5.5 Sharing Responsibility (ch.6) 2 marks

Unit no. and 1 Mark Q. 3marks Q. 4marks Q. Map Question Total

Title/subject Number of Number of Number of Number of

Question Question Question Question

Serial no. Serial no. Serial no. Serial no.

1. India and the

Contemporary 20 1 1 3 11-13 2 19-20 1 29 20(7)

world II (History) (2marks)

2. India -

Resources 18 3 2-4 1 14 2 21-22 1 30 18 (7)

and their (4marks)

Development (Geog)

3. Democratic 18 3 5-7 1 15 3 23-25 – - 18 (7)

Politics II (Civics)

4. Understanding

Economics 16 1 8 1 16 3 26-28 – - 16(5)

5. Disaster 8 2 9-10 2 17-18 – - – - – 8(4)

Management

Total 80 10 1-10 8 11-18 10 19-28 2 29-30 80(30).

Marks

}

4

Estimated Difficulty Percentage Unit -wise Marks Total

Level I II III IV V

Difficult (A) 20% 4 4 4 2 2 16

Average (B) 50% 10 10 8 8 4 40

Easy (C) 30% 6 4 6 6 2 24

Total 100% 20 18 18 16 8 80

(i) 1 mark questions : one word / one sentence each and time 2 mts. 10×2 =20mts

(ii) 3 marks questions : 60-80 words each and time 6 mts. 8×6 = 48mts

(iii) 4 marks questions : 80-100 words each and time 8 mts. 10×8 = 80mts

(iv) Map questions : Time 15 mts. 2 = 15mts

Revision = 17mts

180 Mts / 3 Hrs.

(For identification only)

Page.6: Europe after the Congress of Vienna 1815

1. Sardinia 2. Kingdom of the two sicilies 3. Austrian Empire-Austria,Hungary

and Galicia 4. Portugal, 5. France 6. Spain 7. Ottoman Empire

8. Kingdom of papal state -Rome.

(For identification only)

Page 47. Four states in Indo-China before the formation of Republic of Vietnam

1. Laos, 2. Cambodia, 3. North and South Vietnam, and 4. Thailand

5

(For identification only)

Page 85. Map of Colonial Africa at the end of the 19th Century

Colonies in Africa of the two powerful countries of Europe

(i). British colonies :- 1 Egypt, 2. Anglo Egyptian Sudan, 3. Gold Coast,

4. Nigeria 5. British East Africa, 6. Northern Rhodesia and

7. Southern Rhodesia

(ii) French colonies :- 1. Morocco, 2. Algeria, 3.French West Africa, 4. French

Equatorial Africa, 5. Middle Congo and 6. Madagascar

Page 53, Nationalism in India – (1918 – 1930).

(i) For locating and labelling only

1. Indian National Corgress Sessions :- Calcutta 1920, Madras,(1927) and Lahore (1929)

2. Important Centres of Indian National Movement

(Non-cooperation and Civil Disobedience Movement)

(i) Chauri Chaura (U.P.) calling off the NCM.

(ii) Bardoli (Gujarat) no tax campaign

(iii) Dandi (Gujarat ) Civil Disobidience Movement.

(iv) Champaran (Bihar) Movement of Indigo Planters

(v) Amritsar (Punjab) Jallianwala Bagh Incident.

(ii) For identification only

3. Main Centres of overseas trade in the Western coast and Eastern coast of India (Page91):

Goa, Surat, Madras, and Masulipatam

4. Large – scale industrial regions in India, 1931 (Page 123) :

Bangal, Bombay, Madras, etc.

6

Identification only : Major soil Types.

Locating and Labelling – Dams: (1) Salal; (2) Bhakra Nangal; (3) Tehri; (4) Rana Pratap

Sagar; (5) Gandhi Sagar; (6) Sardar Sarovar; (7) Rihand; (8) Hirakud;

(9) Ramagundam; (10) Nagarjuna Sagar; (11) Tungabhadra; (12) Koyna and

(13) Periyar Dam

Minerals : (Identification only)

(I) Iron ore mines : Mayurbhanj, Durg, Bailadila, Bellary and Kudremukh

(II) Bauxite mines : Koraput, Katni, Amarkantak and Bilaspur.

(III) Manganese mines: Sundergarh, Balaghat, Shimoga and Nagpur

(IV) Mica mines: Ajmer, Beawar, Nellore, Gaya and Hazaribagh.

(V) Coal mines : Raniganj, Jharia, Bokaro, Talcher, Korba, Singrauli, Singareni and Neyvali.

(VI) Oil Fields : Digboi, Naharkatia, Mumbai High, Bassian, Kalol and Ankaleshwar.

Power Plants:- (Locating and Lebelling only)

(a) Thermal : Namrup, Loktak, Bongaigaon, Barauni,Harduaganj, Chandrapura, Korba, Delhi,

Satpura, Bhusawal, Uran, Ramagundam, Vijaywada and Tuticorin.

(b) Nuclear: Narora, Rawat Bhata, Kakrapara, Tarapur, Kaiga and Kalpakkam.

Locating and Lebelling Only

(1) Cotton Textile Industries : Mumbai, Pune, Aurangabad, Indore, Ahmedabad, Surat, Agra,

Kanpur, Moradabad, Chennai, Coimbatore and Madurai.

(2) Woollen Industry : Srinagar, Amritsar, Ludhiana, Panipat, Bikaner, Kanpur, Mirzapur and

Jamnagar.

(3) Silk Industry : Baramula, Anatnag, Srinagar, Murshidabad, Bankura, Kolar, Mysore and

Bangalore.

7

(4) Iron and Steel Plants : Burnpur, Durgapur, Bokaro, Jamshedpur, Raurkela, Bhilai, Vijaynagar,

Bhadravati, Vishakhapatnam and Salem.

(5) Software Technology Parks: Srinagar, Mohali, Noida, Jaipur, Gandhinagar, Indore, Mumbai,

Pune, Guwahati, Kolkata, Bhubaneshwar, Vishakhapatnam, Hyderabad, Bangalore, Mysore,

Chennai and Tiruvanantapuram.

Identification Only : Golden Quadrilateral, North-South Corridor and East-West Corridor.

National Highways : NH-1, NH-2, NH-3, NH-5, NH-7, NH-8, NH-15 and NH-17

Locating and Labelling : Major Ports – Kandla, Mumbai, Jawahar Lal Nehru, Marmagao,

New Mangalore, Kochi, Tuticorin, Chennai, Vishakhapatnam, Paradip, Haldia and Kolkata.

International Airports : Amritsar (Raja Sansi);

Delhi (Indira Gandhi International); Mumbai (Chhatrapati Shivaji);

Tiruvanantapuram (Nedimbachery); Chennai (Meenam Bakkam);

Kolkata (Netaji Subhash Chandra Bose) and Hyderabad

Note : Items of locating and labelling may also be given for identification.

8

1. There are 5 folllowing prescribed textbooks in Social Science for class X.

Unit (1) : India and the Contemporary World – II (History) Published by N.C.E.R.T. (T.B.1)

Unit (2) : Contemporary India II (Geography) Published by N.C.E.R.T. (T.B. 2)

Unit (3) : Democratic Politics II (Pol.Sc) – Published by N.C.E.R.T. (T.B. 3)

Unit (4) : Understanding Economic Development II – Published by N.C.E.R.T. (T.B. 4)

Unit (5) : Together Towards A Safer India – Part III, a text book on Disaster Management for

class – X – Published by CBSE (T.B. 5)

2. There will be 30 questions including 1 map question from Unit 1 and 1map question from

unit 2.

3. (a) Question no 29 will be the map question from unit 1 for 2 marks.

(b) Question no 30 will be the map question from unit 2 for 4 marks.

(c) For map question, list of map items is already given after the design at Sl. No. 7.

4. Question papers are to be set according to the design of the question paper.

5. The following topics have been deleted in Contemporary India (Geography) Part II:

(i) Chapter 2 – Forest and Wild life Resources

(ii) In Chapter 4 – Food security (page 44) and impact of Globalization on Agriculture. (page 46)

6. Disaster Management is included in Unit 5 for 8 marks. Chapter 1 – Introduction and

Chapter 7 – Planning ahead of the CBSE ‘s Text book on Disaster Management are not

to be tested.

7. Content of question papers and their marking schemes (Including outline of answers)

should adhere to the textbooks stated above.

8. A new type of question has been introduced in Social Science. for Class X. This may

include source based questions from extracts ( Yellow box in the Text Book), and

interpretation of any illustration/pictures given in the text book.

9

1

2

3

4

1 or 2

3

4, 5 & 6

7 or 8

Map Work

1 & 4

3, 5 & 6

7

Map Work

1 & 2

3 & 4

5 & 6

7 & 8

1

2

3

4

5

2 & 5

3 & 4

6

(Any two)

4

4

6

4

2

5

6

3

4

4

6

4

4

1

4

4

4

3

3

3

2

5

Sub – Total

Total

-

80

4(1)

4(1)

6(2) 20(7)

4(1)

4(1)

1(1)

2(2)

3(1)

2(1)

18(7)

3(1)

4(1)

4(1)

4(1)

4(1)

2(2)

3(1) 1(1)

18(7)

4(1)

4(1)

4(1)

3(1)

1(1)

16(5)

3(1)

3(1)

2(2)

8(4)

6(2) 80

80 (30) 80(30)

1(1)

Form of

Question

Chapter. No.

Long

Answer

Short

Answer

Very Short

Answer

Map

Question

Total

of

Unit

TOTAL

(4) (3) (1) 2+4

(1), Figures within brackets indicate number of Questions and outside the brackets their total marks .

(2), Type of Questions are; (i) V.S.A 1 mark Q)-Sr.No. 1-10, (ii) S.A. (3marks Q.) Sr.No. 11-18, (iii) L.A

(4marks Q.)- Sr. No. 19-28, (iv) Map Q. (2&4 marks) – Sr. No, 29 & 30 and (3) Text book No: 1- History; 2-

Geography; 3- Pol.Sc;4- Economics 5- Disaster Management.

10

1. There are 30 questions in all. All questions are compulsory.

2. Marks for each question are indicated against the question.

3. Questions from serial number 1 to 10 are 1mark questions.

Answers of these questions may be from one word to one sentence.

4. Questions from serial number 11 to18 are 3 marks questions.

Answers of these questions should not exceed 80 words each.

5. Questions from serial number 19 to 28 are 4 marks questions.

Answer of these questions should not exceed 100 words each.

6. Question No, 29 & 30 are map questions. Attach the maps inside your answer book.

Q.1 Why did the British Government curtail the freedom of Press after 1857 in India? 1

OR

Write the main contribution of Vaikkom Muhammad Basheer as a novelist in Malayalam

literature 1

Q.2 Explain the most important use of the relief feature of India occupying the largest

percentage of the total land area. 1

Q.3 Why did Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru proclaim the river dams as the temples of modern

India? Explain the main reason. 1

Q.4 Write one point of similarity and one point of difference between magnetite and hematite.

½ + ½ = 1

Q.5 Mention any two ways in which caste has influenced politics in India. ½ + ½ = 1

Q.6 Name any two Asian countries in which there was conflict between two linguistic and

ethnic groups. ½ + ½ = 1

Q.7 State one reform for making Indian democracy more effective. 1

Q.8 Define per capita income. 1

Q.9 Name any two officials who constitute the District Level Disaster management Committee.

½+ ½ = 1

11

Q.10 State one aim of the National Cadet Corps. 1

Q11 Analyse the three measures adopted by the producers in India to expand the market for

their goods in the 19th century. 3×1=3

Q.12 Explain three types of movements or ‘flow’ within the international economic exchange

in the 19th century in the context to world economy. 3×1=3

Q.11 Describe the position of women in Britain in the 19th century in three points. 3×1=3

Q.12 “The indentured labour gave rise to a new culture in the Carribean” Justify this Statement

with three examples. 3×1=3

Q.11 The First world war created dramatically a new situation for Indian Industries. Analyse

how this happened by giving three situations. 3×1=3

Q12 Do you agree or disagree that the process of Urbanization in the city of London provided

more disappointments than opportunities. Give three reasons in support of your answer.

3×1=3

Q.13.1Read the following extract taken from the textbook and answer the questions that follow:

In 1926, Begum Rokeya Sakhawat Hossien, a noted educationist and literary figure.

strongly condemned men for withholding education from women in the name of religion

as she addressed the Bengal Women’s Education Conference:

The opponents of female education say that women will become unruly…..Fie! they call

them selves Muslims and yet go against the basic tenets of Islam which gives women an

equal right to education. If men are not led astray once educated, why should women?

(a) Explain how Begum Rokeya Sakhawat Hossein asserts women’s right to education?

(b) What was the impact of printed books on women in India in the 19th century.? 1+2=3

OR

Q.13.2 Novels created a sense of social awareness in India. Analyse giving one example.

3×1=3

12

Q.14 Study the above map and answer the following questions:

(14.1) Name the three states each of which has two major sea ports.

(14.2) Name any one port of each of these states 1½ + 1½=3

For Blind students only in lieu of question number 14

Name the three states, each of which has two major sea ports and also name any one

port of each of these states. 1½ + 1½ = 3

Q.15 Examine with the help of three examples, how dignity and freedom of citizens are best

guaranteed in a democracy.

Q.16 Analyse the meaning of right to choose provided under Consumer Protection Act.

13

Q.17 State any two causes of tsunami and explain any two measures you would suggest to the

people living in coastal areas for safeguarding themselves during a tsunami.

1+2=3

Q.18 “During any major disaster , the communication links are completely disrupted.

Therefore it is crucially important to have alternative communication systems”. Justify

the statement by three suitable arguments 3×1=3

Q.19.1Give any four features of the Ho Chi Minh Trail in the Vietnamese war against the U.S.

4×1=4

OR

Q.19.2 Describe four stages of unification of Germany. 4×1=4

Q.20 What were the reasons for the launching of the Non-cooperation movement? What was

Gandhiji’s idea behind launching it as stated in his book Hind Swaraj? 2+2=4

Q.21 Describe four important characteristics of rice cultivation in India. 4×1=4

Q.22 Which factor plays the most dominant role in the ideal location of an industry? Explain

any three reasons in support of this factor. 1+3=4

Q.23 With the help of two examples explain how social divisions have affected politics.

2+2=4

Q.24 Describe any four measures taken to decentralize power in India 4×1=4

Q.25 “Political parties play a major role in democracy.” Give four points to justify this statement.

4×1=4

Q.26 The following table shows the sources of credit for rural households in India in 2003

Source Share

Money lenders 30%

Cooperative societies 27%

Commercial banks 25%

Others (traders, relatives etc) 18%

On the basis of the above table answer the following questions:

(26.1) What is the share of formal sector in the total credit?

(26.2) Suggest two measures for improving the share of formal sector in total credit.

(26.3) Why is money lender still the largest single source of credit? 1+2+1=4

Q.27 Give the meaning of tertiary sector. State any three factors that have contributed to the

growth of this sector. 1+3=4

Q.28 Why did the Indian government put barriers to foreign trade and foreign investment after

independence?

14

Q.29.1 After the congress of vienna in 1815 a series of states were set up in Europe. Four of

them are shown in the given outline map of Europe by number 1 to 4. Identify these

states and write their correct names on the lines marked in the map. 4x½=2

OR

Q.29.2 4 countries of Indo-China before 1974 are shown on a map of Asia by four different

shades A, B, C & D. Identify these countries and write their correct names on the lines

marked against A, B, C & D in the map.

4x½=2

Q.29. 1

15

OR

Q.29. 2

16

Name the four European powers which met at Vienna in 1815 to draw up a settlement

for Europe.

Q.(30.1) Eight features with serial No. 1 to 8 are marked on the given outline political map of

India. Identify these features with the help of the following information and write their correct

names on the lines marked in the map:

1. Type of soil; 2. Leading producer of coffee; 3. Eastern terminal city of

East-West corridor; 4. A coal mine; 5. A river dam; 6. A steel plant;

7. Silk textile centre and 8. International Airport 8x½=4

17

OR

Q.(30.2) Locate and label the following on the given outline political map of India:

(i) An iron and steel plant located in Chhattisgarh.

(ii) Nuclear Power plant in Tamil Nadu.

(iii) Software Technology park in Jammu & Kashmir

(iv) A sea port in Andhra Pradesh 4×1=4

18

1. Name the soil type known for cotton cultivation.

2. Name the iron and steel plant located in chattisgarh.

3. Which Nuclear Power Plant is located in Tamil Nadu?

4. What is the name of the software Technology park located in Jammu&Kashmir.

5. Name the state which is the leading producer of coffee.

6. Name the eastern terminal city of the East-West corridor.

7. Name the important silk textile centre in eastern Uttar Pradesh

8. Name the international Airport in Punjab. 8x½=4

1

Time Allowed : 3 Hours Max. Marks : 80

1. There are 30 questions in all. All questions comulsory.

2. Marks for each question are indicated against the question.

3. Questions from serial number 1 to 10 are 1mark questions.

Answer of these questions may be from one word to one sentence.

4. Questions from serial number11 to 18 are 3 marks questions.

Answer of these questions should not exceed 20 words each.

5. Questions from serial number 19 to 28 are 4marks questions

Answer of these questions should not exceed 100 words each.

6. Question No. 29 and 30 are map questions. Attach the maps inside your answer book.

Q.1 State the two main principles of Gandhiji’s method of national struggle? 1

Q.2 Why is mineral conservation very essential for sustainable development? 1

Q.3 What is the upper limit of size of financial investment which separates a

small scale industry from a large scale industry in India? 1

Q.4 How does terrace cultivation restrict soil erosion in mountainous regions. 1

Q.5 Name the conflicting groups of people in SriLanka. ½ + ½ = 1

Q.6 Explain the term feminist movements. 1

Q.7 Why is democracy a better form of government? Give any two reasons. ½ + ½ = 1

Q.8 Why is per capita income of different countries calculated in dollars and

not in their own currencies by the World Bank? 1

Q.9 Name the nodal ministry which coordinates all disaster management

activities except drought. 1

Q.10 Under which circumstances do the Indian armed forces take on the

responsibility of managing disasters? 1

2

Q.11 Read the following extract from the text book and answer the questions that follow:

We believe that it is inalienable right of

the Indian people, as of any other people, to have freedom and to enjoy the fruits of their

toil and have the necessities of life, so that they may have full opportunities of growth. We

believe also that if any government deprives a people of these rights and oppresses them,

the people have a further right to alter it or to abolish it. The British Government in India

has not only deprived the Indian people of their freedom but has based itself on the

exploitation of the masses, and has ruined India economically, politically, culturally and

spiritually. We believe, therefore, that India must severe the British connection and attain

Purna Swaraj or Complete Independence.

(a) In what two ways was the British rule in India oppressive?

(b) Explain the immediate effects of the Lahore Session of the Congress on

the Indian National Movements. 1+2=3

Q.12 Explain three major features of global agricultural economy that had

taken shape towards the close of the 19th century. 3×1=3

Q.12 Explain any three reasons as to why the technological changes were

taking place at a slower pace in the factories in the 19th century. 3×1=3

Q.12 Describe in an three points the Social changes in the city of London

with respect to entertainment and leisure of the people due to

industrialization. 3×1=3

th

century saw decline of Indian textile

industries”. Justify the statement with 3 valid arguments 3×1=3

Q.12 Why is Bombay a city of dreams for some, while a city of

hardship for others? 3

Q.13 Examine why the Great Depression

was a catastrophic event for the

U.S.A. 3

Q.14 Carefully observe the given picture

and answer the questions that

follow:

3

(14.1) Suggest a suitable title for the given picture.

(14.2) Explain any two reasons which are responsible for making this mode of

transport very popular is north eastern states of India. 1+2=3

In which region of India is air transport more popular than the other means of

transport? Give two reasons. 1+2=3

Q.15 Examine three challenges of democracy.

Q.16 Explain with three suitable examples the meaning of “right to be informed”

as provided under Consumer Protection Act. 3

Q.17 “The main Goal of First Aid is to restore and maintain vital functions

of an injured person”. Explain the statement with three suitable examples. 3×1=3

Q.18 Study the above diagram showing three types of roof designs and answer

the following question :

(18.1) Write the appropriate names of roof designs A, B and C.

(18.2) Which type of roof design gets the lowest uplift of wind force and why? 1½+1½=3

Which type of roof design gets the lowest uplift of wind force and why? 3

Q.19 What were the differences of opinion between the two groups in Vietnam regarding the

introduction of French Education System? 4

OR

How did the Balkan region become a source of nationalist tension in Europe after 1871

Explain four points

Q.20 Describe how the works of Munshi Prem Chand reflect the social conditions of the

th

century. 4

OR

Describe any two popular themes on which women writers in England

th

century. 4

Q.21 Explain any four features of the comprehensive land development

programmes initiated in our country during 1980s and 1990s. 4×1=4

Q.22 Describe any four traditional methods of rainwater harvesting adopted

in different parts of India. 4×1=4

(A) (B) (C)

4

Q.23 Explain any four forms of power sharing. 4

Q.24 Describe any two features each of sectional and promotional pressure

groups in India. 2+2=4

Q.25 “Women in India continue to to be discriminated leading to their

unequal position in the society” Justify this statement with

four suitable examples. 4×1=4

Q.26 Name two formal and two informal sources of rural credit in India.

State any two advantages of formal source of credit. 1+1+2=4

Q.27 Why has tertiary sector become the largest producer in India over

the last 30 years? Explain four reasons. 4×1=4

Q.28 Analyse one good and one bad effect of globalisation in India. 2+2=4

29 Four centres of Indian National Movement are shown on the political

map of India by number 1 to 4. identify these centres & write their correct

names on the lines marked in the map. 4x½=2

5

Name the four prominent centres of Indian national movement.

(30.1) In the given outline political map of India, eight geographical features

A.B.C.D.E.F.G and H. are marked. Identify these features with the

help of map key and write their correct names on the lines marked

against each in the map. (8x½=4)

6

OR

Q.(30.2) On the given outline political map of India locate and label the following

with appropriate symbols: 4×1=4

(i) The dam built on Chenab river.

(ii) The software technological park located in Madhya Pradesh.

(iii) The Southern most major seaport of India.

(iv) Iron and steel plant in Orissa.

7

: The following questions are for the Blind Candidates in lieu of Q.No. (30) 8×1=24

FREE MORE QUESTIONS ON   http://indiaknow.blogspot.com

X – SCIENCE (THEORY)
Time : 2½ Hours Max. Marks : 60
The weightage to marks over different dimensions of the question paper shall be as under:
A. Weightage to Content/Subject units
S.No Content Unit Marks
1. Chemical Substances 18
2. World of living 16
3. Effects of current 10
4. Light 8
5. Natural Resources 8
Total 60
B. Weightage to forms of Questions
S.No. Form of Questions Marks for No. of Total Marks
each question questions
1. Very short answer type (VSA) 01 09 09
2. Short answer type (SA I) 02 09 18
3. Short answer type (SA II) 03 06 18
4. Long answer type (LA) 05 03 15
Total 27 60
C. Number of Sections
The question paper will have two sections A & B
D. Scheme of Options
There will be no overall choice. However, there is an internal choice in every question of
five marks category.
2
E. Weightage to difficulty level of questions
S.No. Estimated difficulty level of Percentage
questions
1. Easy 15
2. Average 70
3. Difficult 15
F. Typology of Questions
In order to assess different abilities related to the subject, the question paper includes
open-ended questions, drawing/illustrations based questions, communication-skill based
questions and activity-based questions.
About 20% weightage has been assigned to questions testing higher order
thinking skills of learners.
3
BLUE PRINT I
X SCIENCE (THEORY)
VSA SA – I SA – II LA Total
Unit (1 Mark) (2 Marks) (3 Marks) (5 Marks)
Chemical Substances 3(3) 4(2) 6(2) 5(1) 18(8)
World of Living 2(2) 6(3) 3(1) 5(1) 16(7)
Effects of current 1(1) 4(2) – 5(1) 10(4)
Light 2(2) – 6(2) – 8(4)
Natural Resources 1(1) 4(2) 3(1) – 8(4)
Total 9(9) 18(9) 18(6) 15(3) 60(27)
Form of
Questions
4
SAMPLE PAPER I
X – SCIENCE (THEORY)
Time : 2½ Hours Max. Marks : 60
General Instructions
1. The question paper comprises of two sections A and B. You are to attempt both the
sections.
2. All questions are compulsory.
3. There is no overall choice However, internal choice has been provided in all the three
questions of five marks category. Only one option in such questions is to be attempted.
4. All questions of section A and all questions of section B are are to be attempted separately.
5. Questions 1 to 6 in section A and 17 to 19 in section B are short question.These carry one
mark each.
6. Questions 7 to 10 in section A and 20 to 24 in section B are short answer type questions
and carry two marks each.
7. Questions 11 to 14 in section A and 25 to 26 in section B are also short answer type
questions and carry three marks each.
8. Questions 15 and 16 in section A and question 27 in section B are long answer type
questions and carry five marks each.
SECTION A
1. A ray of light LM is incident on a mirror as shown in the figure. The angle of incidence for
this ray is the angle between it and the line joining two other points in the figure. Name
these two points.
2. Metals generally occur in solid state. Name and write symbol of a metal that exists in
liquid state at room temperature.
3. During summer season, a milkman usually adds a very small amount of baking soda to
fresh milk. Give one reason.
5
4. The following table gives the values of refractive indices of a few media.
S.No. 1 2 3 4 5
Medium Water Crown Glass Rock salt Ruby Diamond
Refractive 1.33 1.52 1.54 1.71 2.42
Index
Use this table to give an example of (i) a medium pair so that light speeds up when it goes
from one of these media to another. (ii) a medium pair so that light slows down when it
goes from one of these media to another.
5. Why potato chips manufacturers fill the packet of chips with nitrogen gas?
6. Alloys are used in electrical heating devices rather than pure metals. Give one reason.
7. Tooth enamel is one of the hardest substances in our body. How does it undergo damage
due to eating chocolates and sweets? What should we do to prevent it?
8. A student has been collecting silver coins and copper coins. One day she observed a
black coating on silver coins and a green coating on copper coins. Which chemical
phenomenon is responsible for these coatings? Write the chemical name of black and
green coatings.
9. Two students perform the experiments on series and parallel combinations of two given
resistors R1 and R2 and plot the following V-I graphs.
Which of the graphs is (are) correctly labelled in terms of the words ‘series’ and parallel’
Justify your answer.
10. Draw the pattern of magnetic field lines of a current carrying solenoid. What does the
pattern of field lines inside the solenoid indicate? Write one application of magnetic field
of current carrying solenoid.
11. A student finds the writing on the blackboard as blurred and unclear when sitting on the
last desk in the classroom. He however, sees it clearly when sitting on the front desk at an
approximate distance of 2m from the blackboard.
Draw ray diagrams to illustrate the formation of image of the blackboard writing by his
eye-lens when he is seated at the (i) last desk (ii) front desk.
6
Name the kind of lens that would help him to see clearly even when he is seated at the last
desk. Draw a ray diagram to illustrate how this lens helps him to see clearly.
12. State which of the following chemical reactions will take place or not, giving suitable reason
for each.
Zn (s) + Cu SO4 (aq) —-> Zn SO4 (aq) + Cu (s)
Fe (s) + Zn SO4 (aq) —-> Fe SO4 (aq) + Zn (s)
Zn (s) + Fe SO4 (aq) —-> Zn SO4 (aq) + Fe (s)
13. (a) Two lenses have power of (i) + 2D (ii) – 4D. What is the nature and focal length
of each lens.?
(b) An object is kept at a distance of 100cm from each of above lenses.
Calculate the (i) image distance (ii) magnification in each of the two cases.
14. The following table shows the position of six elements A, B, C, D, E and F in the periodic table.
Groups 1 2 3 to 12 13 14 15 16 17 18
Periods
2. A B C
3. D E F
Using the above table answer the following questions :
(a) Which element will form only covalent compunds?
(b) Which element is a metal with valency 2?
(c) Which element is a non-metal with valency of 3?
(d) Out of D and E, which one has a bigger atomic radius and why?
(e) Write a common name for the family of elements C and F.
15. An organic compound ‘A’ is widely used as a preservative in pickles and has a molecular
formula C2H2O2. This compound reacts with ethanol to form a sweet smelling
compound ‘B.
(i) Identify the compound ‘A’
(ii) Write the chemical equation for its reaction with ethanol to form compound ‘B’.
(iii) How can we get compound ‘A’ back from ‘B’?
(iv) Name the process and write corresponding chemical equation.
(v) Which gas is produced when compound ‘A’ reacts with washing soda?
write the chemical equation.
OR
(a) Why does carbon form largest number of compounds?
(b) Why are some of these called saturated and other unsaturated compounds?
7
(c) Which of these two is more reactive?
(d) Write the names of the compounds.
16. In a household electric circuit different appliances are connected in parallel to one another.
Give two reasons.
An electrician puts a fuse of rating 5A in that part of domestic electrical circuit in which an
electrical heater of rating 1.5kW, 220V is operating. What is likely to happen in this case
and why? What change, if any, needs to be made?
OR
You are given following current-time graphs from two different sources:
(i) Name the type of current in two cases.
(ii) Identify any one source for each type of these currents.
(iii) What is the frequency of current in case II in India?
(iv) Use above graphs to write two difference between the current in two cases.
SECTION B
17. After a vigorous exercise, you may experience cramps in your leg muscles. Why does this
happen? 1
18. Which organ secretes a hormone when the blood sugar rises. Name a digestive enzyme
released by this organ. 1
19. Name two gases, other than carbon-di-oxide, that are given out during burning of fossil
fuel and contribute towards acid rain formation. 1
20. Out of two solar cookers, one was covered by a plane glass slab and the other was left
open. Which of the two solar cookers will be more efficient and why? 2
8
21. In the flow chart given below, fill in the blank spaces with the kind of energy available. 2
22. By comparing the similarity of nucleotide sequences in DNA of different kinds of
organisms, evolutionary relationships can be established
(i) Arrange the following according to their evolutionary closeness. (You may use
your knowledge of classification also).
(ii) Whose DNA among the following do you think is most similar to that of humans? 2
cockroach, mango tree, gorilla, fish
23. Study carefully the food chains given below:-
Food chain I : grass – grasshopper – frog
Food chain II : wheat – rat – snake – hawk
To which of the two consumers, snake or hawk will more energy (percent)
be available and why? 2
24. What do the following transport?
(i) xylem (ii) phloem (iii) pulmonary vein (iv) Vena Cava
25. Give one term caption for
the two pictures given here.
Define the term and give
its signifance in evolution 3
26. Why are environmentalists insisting upon ‘sustainable natural resource management’?
Give any three reasons
9
27. Study the given data and answer the questions following the data.
Parental plants F1 (first generation off spring) F2 (offspring of self pollination of F1
cross fertilised &
seeds collected
Male parent 330 seeds sown Out of 44 seeds
always bore and observed 33 seeds
red flowers. gave plants with
Female parent All 330 gave red flowers and
always had red flowers 11 seeds gave plants with
white flowers. white flowers
(i) What is the term for this type of cross?
(ii) What does the data of the column marked F1 indicate?
(iii) Express the genotype of the (a) parents (b) F1 Progeny and (c) F2 Progeny 5
OR
Study the picture given below and comment on the encircled organisms with respect to
(i) the category according to the food they eat.
(ii) trophic level to which they belong.
(iii) percentage of energy available at their trophic level.
(iv) two abiotic components of the
ecosystem inhabited by them.
(v) energy used for food
production by the producers.
14
X SCIENCE (THEORY)
BLUE PRINT II
VSA SA – I SA – II LA Total
Unit (1 Mark) (2 Marks) (3 Marks) (5 Marks)
Chemical Substances 3(3) 4(2) 6(2) 5(1) 18(8)
World of Living 2(2) 6(3) 3(1) 5(1) 16(7)
Effects of current 1(1) 4(2) – 5(1) 10(4)
Light 2(2) – 6(2) – 8(4)
Natural Resources 1(1) 4(2) 3(1) – 8(4)
Total 9(9) 18(9) 18(6) 15(3) 60(27)
Form of
Questions
15
SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER II
X – SCIENCE (Theory)
Time : 2½ Hours Max. Marks : 60
General Instructions
1. The question paper comprises of two sections A and B. You are to attempt both the sections.
2. All questions are compulsory.
3. There is no overall choice However, internal choice has been provided in all the three
questions of five marks category. Only one option in such questions is to be attempted.
4. All questions of section A and all questions of section B are to be attempted separately.
5. Questions 1 to 6 in section A and 17 to 19 in section B are short answer questions. These
carry one mark each.
6. Questions 7 to 10 in section A and 20 to 24 in section B are short answer type questions
and carry two marks each.
7. Questions 11 to 14 in section A and 25 to 26 in section B are also short answer type
questions and carry three marks each.
8. Questions 15 and 16 in section A and question 27 in section B are long answer type
questions and carry five marks each.
SECTION A
1. A ray of light AM is incident on a spherical mirror as shown in the diagram.
Redraw the diagram on the answer sheet and show the path of reflected ray. Also indicate
and mark the angle of reflection in the diagram.
2. A metal M forms an oxide having the formula M2 O3. It belongs to 3rd period in the modern
periodic table. Write the atomic number and valency of the metal.
3. The ciliary muscles of a normal eye are in their (i) most relaxed (ii) most contracted state.
In which of the two cases is the focal length of the eye-lens more?
16
4. Tap water conducts electricity whereas distilled water does not. Why?
5. An electric geyser has the ratings 2000W, 220V marked on it. What should be the minimum
rating, in whole number of a fuse wire, that may be required for safe use with this geyser?
6. An organic compound burns with a sooty flame. Is it a saturated or an un saturated
compound?
7. Two metallic wires A and B are connected in parallel. Wire A has length l and radius r, wire
B has a length 2l and radius 2r. Compute the ratio of the total resistance of parallel
combination and the resistance of wire A.
8. A student performs an experiment to study the magnetic effect of current around a current
carrying straight conductor. He reports that
(i) the direction of deflection of the north pole of a compass needle kept at a given point
near the conductor remains unaffected even when the terminals of the battery sending
current in the wire are inter changed.
(ii) for a given battery, the degree of deflection of a N-pole decreases when the compass
is kept at a point farther away from the conductor.
Which of the above observations of the student is incorrect and why?
9. A housewife wanted her house to be whitewashed. She bought 10kg of quick lime from
the market and dissolved it in 30 litres of water. On adding lime to water she noticed that
the water started boiling even when it was not being heated. Give reason for her
observation. Write the corresponding chemical equation and name the product formed.
10. Write the electron – dot structure for sodium and chlorine atoms. How do these form a
chemical bond? Name the type of bond so formed. Why does a compond so formed have
high melting point?
11. Two carbon compounds A and B have the molecular formula C3 H8 and C3 H6 respectively.
Which one of the two is most likely to show addition reaction? Justify your answer. Explain
with the help of a chemical equation, how an addition reaction is useful in vegetable ghee
industry.
12. A beam of white light falling on a glass prism gets split up into seven colours marked 1 to
7 as shown in the diagram.
A student makes the following statements about the spectrum observed
on the screen.
a) The colours at positions marked 3 and 5 are similar
to the colour of the sky and the core of a hard boiled
egg respectively.
Is the above statement made by the student correct
or incorrect? Justify.
b) Which two positions correspond closely to the
colour of
17
(i) a solution of potassium permanganate?
(ii) ‘danger’ or stop signal lights?
13. Baking soda is used in small amount in making bread and cake. It helps to make these
soft and spongy. An aqueous solution of baking soda turns red litmus blue. It is also used
in soda acid fire extinguisher.
Use this information to answer the following questions:
(i) How does Baking Soda help to make cakes and bread soft and spongy?
(ii) How does it help in extinguishing fire?
(iii) is the pH value of baking soda solution lesser than or greater than 7?
14. A concave mirror produces three times enlarged image of an object placed at 10 cm
infront of it. Calculate the radius of curvature of the mirror.
15. a) What were the two major shortcomings of Mendeleev’s periodic table? How have
these been removed in the modern periodic table?
b) Two elements X and Y have atomic numbers 12 and 16 respectively. Write the
electronic configuration for these elements. To which period of the modern periodic
table do these two elements belong? What type of bond will be formed between
them and why?
OR
a) What were the two achievements of Mendeleev’s Periodic table? What was the
basis of classification of elements in it ?
b) An element X (2,8,2) combines separately with NO3 and (SO4)2 -, (PO4)3 – radicals.
Write the formulae of the three compounds so formed. To which group of the periodic
table does the element ‘X’ belong? Will it form covalent or ionic compound? Why?
16. a) The electric power consumed by a device may be calculated by using either of the
two expressions P = I2R or P = V 2. The first expression indicates that it is directly
R
proportional to R whereas the second expression indicates inverse proportionality.
How can the seemingly different dependence of P on R in these expressions be
explained?
b) Explain the following:
(i) Why is tungsten used almost exclusively for filament of electric lamps?
(ii) Why are copper and aluminium wires usually used for electricity transmission?
OR
Explain the meaning of the word ‘electromagnetic’ and ‘induction’ in the term
electromagnetic induction. On what factors does the value of induced current produced in
a circuit depend? Name and state the rule used for determination of direction of induced
current. State one practical application of this phenomenon in everyday life.
Section B
17. From the list given below, pick out the items which can be recycled:-
Used clothes, polythene carry bags, glass bottles, newspaper 1
18
18. What does the given experimental
set-up domonstrate? 1
19. A particular hormone requires lodine for its synthesis. Name the endocrine gland which
secretes this hormone and state its location in the human body. 1
20. Why are many thermal power plants set up near coal or oilfields? 2
21. Name those parts of the flower which serve the same function as the following do in the
animals:-
(i) testis (ii) ovary (iii) eggs (iv) sperms
2
22. A graph was plotted to show the energy output of two types of
respiration. Identify the types of respiration denoted by curves A
and B. 2
23. How did the ‘Chipko andolan’ ultimately benefit the local population?
Give any two benefits. 2
24.
(i) Label the two parts indicated by question marks and labelled 1 and 2 in the above
diagram.
(ii) Suggest a suitable caption or heading for the above diagram. 2
?
?
19
25. Write the number given to any six of the organisms shown in Figure B against their
relevent Trophic levels given in figure given below. 3
26. The genotype of green stemmed tomato plants is denoted as GG and that of purplestemmed
tomato plants as gg. When these two are crossed,
(i) What colour of stem would you expect in their F1 progeny?
(ii) Give the percentage of purple-stemmed plants if F1 plants are self pollinated.
(iii) In what ratio would you find the genotypes GG and Gg in the F2 progeny? 3
27. (i) Draw the diagram of heart and label its four chambers
(ii) Construct a table to show the functions of these four chambers. 5
OR
Plants absorb water from the soil. How does this water reach the tree tops? Explain in
detail
24
X SCIENCE (THEORY)
BLUE PRINT III
VSA SA – I SA – II LA Total
Unit (1 Mark) (2 Marks) (3 Marks) (5 Marks)
Chemical Substances 2(2) 2(1) 9(3) 5(1) 18(7)
World of Living 2(2) 6(3) 3(1) 5(1) 16(7)
Effects of current 3(3) 4(2) 3(1) – 10(6)
Light 1(1) 2(1) – 5(1) 8(3)
Natural Resources 1(1) 4(2) 3(1) – 8(4)
Total 9(9) 18(9) 18(6) 15(3) 60(27)
Form of
Questions
25
SAMPLE PAPER III
X SCIENCE (THEORY)
Time : 2½ Hours Max. Marks : 60
General Instructions
1. The question paper comprises of two sections A and B. You are to attempt both the sections.
2. All questions are compulsory.
3. There is no overall choice However, internal choice has been provided in all the three
questions of five marks category. Only one option in such questions is to be attempted.
4. All questions of section A and all questions of section B are to be attempted separately.
5. Questions 1 to 6 in section A and 17 to 19 in section B are to be attempted separately.
6. Questions 7 to 10 in section A and 20 to 24 in section B are short answer type questions
and carry two marks each.
7. Questions 11 to 14 in section A and 25 to 26 in section B are also short answer type
questions and carry three marks each.
8. Questions 15 and 16 in section A and question 27 in section B are long answer type
questions and carry five marks each.
SECTION A
1. Dry Hydrogen Chloride gas does not turn blue litmus red whereas Hydrochloric acid
does. Give one reason.
2. Identify the substance oxidised and reduced in the chemical reaction :
Mn O2 + 4 HCl ——> Mn Cl2 + Cl2 + 2H2O
3. You are give three resistors of 10 Ω, 10 Ω and 20 Ω, a battery of emf 2.5V, a key, an
ammeter and a voltmeter. Draw a circuit diagram showing the correct connections of all
given components such that the voltmeter gives a reading of 2.0V.
4. Sketch magnetic field lines arround a current carrying straight conductor.
5. The electrical resistivity of few materials is given below in ohm-meter. Which of these
materials can be used for making element of a heating device?
A 6.84 x 10-8
B 1.60 x 10-8
C 1.00 x 10-4
D 2.50 x 1012
E 4.40 x 10-5
F 2.30 x 1017
6. Refractive index of media A, B, C and D are
26
A 1.33
B 1.52
C 1.44
D 1.65
In which of the four media is the speed of light (i) maximum (ii) minimum.?
7. A metal is treated with dilute sulphuric acid. The gas
evolved is collected by the method shown in the figure.
Answer the following.
(i) Name the gas.
(ii) Name the method of collection of the gas.
(iii) Is the gas soluble or insoluble in water?
(iv) Is the gas lighter or heavier than air?
8. A household uses the following electric appliances :
(i) Refrigerator of rating 400W for ten hours each day.
(ii) Two electric fans of rating 80W each for twelve hours each day.
(iii) Six electric tubes of rating 18W each for 6 hours each day.
Calculate the electricity bill of the household for the month of June if the cost per unit of
electric energy is Rs. 3.00.
9. What is the meaning of the term ‘frequency’ of an alternating current? What is its value in
India?
Why is an alternating current considered to be advantageous over direct current for long
range transmission of electric energy?
10. A person is able to see objects clearly only when these are lying at distances between
50cm and 300cm from his eye.
a) What kind of defects of vision he is suffering from?
b) What kind of lenses will be required to increase his range of vision from 25cm to
infinity? Explain briefly.
11. A student dropped few pieces of marble in dilute Hydrochloric acid contained in a test
tube. The envolved gas was passed through lime water. What change would be observed
in lime water? Write balanced chemical equations for both the changes observed.
12. Atomic number is considered to be a more appropriate parameter than atomic mass for
classification of elements in a periodic table. Why?
How does atomic size of elements vary on moving from
(i) left to right in a period.
(ii) from top to bottom in a group.
Give reasons for your answers.
13. Why does a current carrying conductor kept in a magnetic field experience force? On
27
what factors does the direction of this force depend? Name and state the rule used for
determination of direction of this force.
14. Answer the following:
(a) Why is Plaster of Paris written as CaSo4 • ½ H2O? How is it possible to have half
a water molecule attached to CaSO4?
(b) Why is Sodium Hydrogen Carbonate an essential ingradiant in antacids.?
(c) When electricity is passed through an acquous solution of sodium chloride, three
products are obtained. Why is the process called chlor-alkali?
15. Four metals A, B, C and D are, in turn, added to the following solutions one by one. The
observations made are tabulatd below:
Metal Iron (II) Sulphate Copper (II) Sulphate Zinc Sulphate Silver Nitrate
A No reaction Displacement — —
B Displacement — No reaction —
C No reaction No reaction No reaction Displacement
D No reaction No reaction No reaction No reaction
Answer the following questions based on above information.
(i) Which is the most active metal and why?
(ii) What would be observed if B is added to a solution of copper (II) sulphate and
why?
(iii) Arrange the metals A, B, C and D in order of increasing reactivity.
(iv) Container of which metal can be used to store both zinc sulphate solution and
silver nitrate solution.
(v) Which of the above solutions can be easily stored in a container made up of any of
these metals?
OR
You are given the following materials:
(i) Iron nails
(ii) Copper sulphate solution
(iii) Barium chloride solution
(iv) Copper powder
(v) Ferrous sulphate crystals
(vi) Quick Lime
Identify the type of chemical reaction taking place when.
(a) Barium chloride solution is mixed with copper sulphate solution and a white
precipitate is observed.
(b) On heating copper powder in air in a China dish, the surface of copper powder
turns black.
(c) On heating green coloured ferrous sulphate crystals, reddish brown solid is left
28
and smell of a gas having odour of burning sulphur is experienced.
(d) Iron nails when left dipped in blue copper sulphate solution become brownish in
colour and the blue colour of copper sulphate fades away.
(e) Quick lime reacts vigorously with water releasing a large amount of heat.
16. Draw ray diagrams to show the formation of a three times magnified (i) real image (ii)
virtual image of an object kept in front of a converging lens. Mark the positions of object, F,
2F, O and position of image clearly in the diagram.
An object of size 5 cm is kept at a distance of 25cm from the optical centre of a converging
lens of focal length 10cm. Calculate the distance of the image from the lens and size of the
image.
OR
Give reasons for the following:
(i) The sky appears to be blue during day time to a person on earth.
(ii) The sky near the horizon appears to have a reddish heu at the time of sunset and
sunrise.
(iii) The sky appears dark instead of blue to an astronaut.
(iv) The stars appears to twinkle.
(v) The planets do not twinkle.
(SECTION B)
17. Justify in one sentence that hydropower (hydel electricity) is a renewable source of
energy. 1
18. ‘Malarial parasite’ divides into many daughter individuals simultaneously through multiple
fission. State an advantage the parasite gets because of this type of reproduction. 1
19. The human hand, cat paw and the horse foot, when studied in detail show the same structure
of bones and point towards a common origin.
(i) What do you conclude from this?
(ii) What is the term given to such structures? 1
20. In the test tubes A and B shown below, yeast was kept in sugar solution. Which products of
respiration would you expect in tubes A and B?
2
29
21. Write one feature which is common to each of the following pairs of terms / organs.
(i) glycogen and starch ; (ii) chlorophyll and haemoglobin
(iii) gills and lungs (iv) arteries and veins 2
22. The given experimental set up tests the response of
different parts of plant towards gravity. Use
scientific terms for the conclusions. 2
23. Select the biodegradable items from the list given below.
Polythene bags, old clothes, wilted flowers, pencil shavings, glass bangles, bronze statue
vegetable peels. 2
24. 2
Given above is a picture of an ecosystem. Identify any two abiotic components and any
two biotic components of this ecosystem. 2
25. Quote three instances where human intervention saved the forests from destruction. 3
26. Label parts 1 to 6 in the
given figure of the brain
3
27. Explain that it is a matter of chance whether a couple will give birth to a boy or a girl. 5
OR
Which hormone is released into blood when its sugar level rises? Name the organ which
produces the hormone and its effect on blood sugar level. Also name one digestive enzyme
that this organ secretes and the function of this enzyme.

A trail of developments mark the significant changes that took place over the years in shaping up the Board to its present status.  U P Board of High School and Intermediate Education was the first Board set up in 1921. It has under its jurisdiction Rajputana, Central India and Gwalior.  In response to the representation  made by the Government of United Provinces, the then Government of India suggested to set up a joint Board in 1929 for all the areas which was named as the  ‘ Board of High School and Intermediate Education, Rajputana.   This included Ajmer, Merwara, Central India and Gwalior.

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